Kollel Iyun Hadaf Insights to the Daf: Sotah 21-25

 Insights to the Daf: Sotah 21-25

1) THE PROTECTIVE QUALITIES OF LEARNING TORAH AND PERFORMING MITZVOS
QUESTION: The Beraisa explains that the merit of a Mitzvah is compared to candlelight, and the merit of learning Torah is compared to daylight. Just as candlelight provides only a temporary protection from the dangers of the dark, a Mitzvah protects a person only temporarily. The merit of learning Torah, on the other hand, is like daylight; just as daylight is a permanent form of protection (for the sun consistently rises each day), the Torah is a permanent form of protection for a person.
In the Gemara's conclusion, Rava explains that both Torah and Mitzvos protect a person from Yisurin, physical afflictions in this world, both during the time he is involved in them (learning Torah or performing a Mitzvah) and afterwards. The Torah has the additional property that during the time a person is learning, it also protects him from the Yetzer ha'Ra (that is, it affords spiritual protection as well as physical protection).
The Gemara's conclusion seems to contradict the statement of the Beraisa. The Beraisa says that the difference between the merit of Torah and the merit of a Mitzvah is that the merit of Torah provides a more permanent form of protection. According to Rava, however, both the Torah and a Mitzvah offer protection from Yisurin even when a person is not involved with them. Only with regard to protection from the Yetzer ha'Ra do the two differ: a Mitzvah does not provide any protection, while the Torah does.
With regard to what form of danger does the Beraisa state that a Mitzvah provides protection but its protection is less than that provided by the Torah? (TOSFOS DH Mitzvah)
ANSWERS:
(a) The MAHARSHA answers that a Mitzvah's protection exists only in Olam ha'Zeh, this world. The Torah, in contrast, provides protection for the Neshamah even after the person leaves this world. It protects the Neshamah from the Yisurin of Din, judgement, in Olam ha'Ba. (See Chagigah 27a: "The fire of Gehinom has no power over those who learn Torah"; see also Chagigah 15b, and RASHASH and NETZIV here.) In this sense the protection of the Torah is more permanent than the protection of a Mitzvah.
TOSFOS, however, does not accept this answer, perhaps because the Beraisa continues and says that there is another explanation for the difference between Torah and Mitzvos -- that sin can extinguish the merit of a Mitzvah (l'Asid la'Vo; see Rashi and Tosfos) but it cannot extinguish the merit of Torah. What does the Beraisa mean when it says that a sin can extinguish a Mitzvah? If a person performs a Mitzvah, how can he lose reward for it by doing an Aveirah? The Beraisa must mean that the reward of the Mitzvah cannot overpower the necessity for punishment for the Aveirah. Consequently, the person will be punished for the Aveirah despite the fact that he did a Mitzvah. With regard to Torah, however, the Torah he learned will protect him to some extent from punishment for his Aveiros. Since the "Davar Acher" of the Beraisa expresses this difference between Torah and Mitzvos, this cannot be the difference expressed by the first part of the Beraisa. Perhaps the Maharsha understands that the "Davar Acher" indeed expresses the same idea as the first part of the Beraisa but merely in different terms. (Tosfos considered this interpretation improbable and thus did not accept it.)
(b) The CHAFETZ CHAIM in LIKUTEI HALACHOS explains that there are two ways of learning Torah and doing Mitzvos: Lishmah and she'Lo Lishmah. Rava, who says that Torah protects a person from sinning only when he is involved with learning Torah, refers to one who learns she'Lo Lishmah, such as the Torah-learning of Doeg (Sanhedrin 106a). However, when a person learns Torah or does Mitzvos Lishmah, the Torah protects him from the Yetzer ha'Ra even while he is not involved in learning Torah, and Mitzvos protect him from the Yetzer ha'Ra when he is involved in their performance.
The OR HA'CHAIM HA'KADOSH (Vayikra 26:3:7) uses this approach to defend the view of Rav Yosef who suggests that the Torah protects a person from the Yetzer ha'Ra even when he is not learning. The Gemara rejects Rav Yosef's view on the grounds that if the Torah protects a person from sinning, how was it possible that Doeg and Achitofel, who learned Torah, succumbed to sin? The Or ha'Chaim answers that Doeg and Achitofel learned Torah she'Lo Lishmah and that is why their Torah did not protect them while they were not learning. When Rav Yosef explains that Torah protects a person even when he is not learning, he is discussing one who learns Torah Lishmah. (Tosfos may not accept this approach because of this very reason; according to the Chafetz Chaim, Rava's rejection of Rav Yosef's explanation of the Beraisa is not justified. The Chafetz Chaim may understand that a woman who learns Torah is comparable to a man who learns Torah she'Lo Lishmah, since she has no obligation of Talmud Torah. That is why Rava, who is discussing the Torah and Mitzvos of a woman, refer to Torah and Mitzvos she'Lo Lishmah.)
(c) TOSFOS later in the Sugya asks another question. Rav Yosef says that if Achitofel would have realized that the merit of Torah study protects a person from harm, he would not have attempted to harm David ha'Melech. The reason why Achitofel thought he could overpower David ha'Melech was that he suspected that David ha'Melech was involved with the sin of Eshes Ish, and the Torah says that such an act causes the Shechinah to depart from the person and leave him unprotected. Achitofel did not realize that David's Torah-learning would protect him even from such an Aveirah. Tosfos (DH v'Hen) asks that the Gemara earlier says that both Torah and Mitzvos can protect a person from punishment, even while he is not involved in them. Why, then, does Rav Yosef imply that it was the unique merit of Torah that was able to protect David ha'Melech?
To answer these questions, it is necessary to address another question. The Gemara in Berachos (19a) teaches that if one sees a Talmid Chacham transgress an Aveirah at night, he must assume that by the next morning the Talmid Chacham has already repented for his sin. Why, then, did Achitofel assume that he could overpower David ha'Melech, if he knew that David ha'Melech presumably repented for his sin? The answer is that the Mishnah at the end of Yoma (85b) teaches that Teshuvah alone does not suffice to atone for all sins. If a person commits the type of sin that involves Kares or Misas Beis Din, he must first undergo Yisurin (afflictions) in order to gain atonement. If a person commits the type of sin that involves Chilul Hash-m (because the sin is publicized), he does not achieve full atonement until death. Achitofel relied on the fact that David ha'Melech would have to suffer Yisurin and death first in order to gain atonement, and therefore he reasoned that he would be successful in joining Avshalom to vanquish David ha'Melech.
There are two different types of tragedy which may befall a person, Chas v'Shalom. The first type is a tragedy which befalls a person because of natural circumstances (his "Mazal"). The second type is a tragedy one faces as a direct result of his sins ("Yisurin Mechaprin"). When the Beraisa states that Torah and Mitzvos protect a person from evil even when he is not involved in Torah and Mitzvos at the moment, it might refer to natural evils which befall him because of his "Mazal." However, when a person is destined to suffer punishment because of his sins, the Mitzvos he performs cannot protect him from punishment since it has been decreed that he must suffer to atone for his sons. Learning Torah, however, can take the place of physical suffering and even death, because the exertion involved in toiling in Torah is equivalent to physical affliction and even death. (See Tamid 32a, Berachos 63b, Shabbos 88a, and Midrash Tanchuma, beginning of Parshas Noach).
This explains why only Torah was able to protect David ha'Melech. David ha'Melech was deserving of Yisurin to atone for his sins, and only Torah could provide that degree of Yisurin for his atonement.
This also explains Rava's statement. Rava says that the merit of a Mitzvah protects a person permanently, even when he is not involved with the Mitzvah, but it protects him only from natural circumstances. If the person is deserving of punishment and needs Yisurin to atone for his sins, only Torah can provide him with protection. The Beraisa, which compares the Torah to daylight which affords more permanent protection, refers to protection from Yisurin due to Aveiros.
Why does Rava explain that the merit of a Mitzvah can protect a woman from the effects of the Mei Sotah? The Mei Sotah serves to punish her for the sin of adultery, but a Mitzvah cannot protect a person from Yisurin that come for atonement for a sin! The answer is that the punishment that comes from drinking the Mei Sotah is not the same as an ordinary punishment of Misas Beis Din which Beis Din administers in order to punish a wrongdoer and enable him to atone for his sins. Rather, the Mei Sotah proves whether or not she is permitted to her husband by the "natural" element of cause and effect which Hash-m put into the world, wherein a sinner's body reacts to the sanctity of the holy Name mixed with the waters of the Kiyor and the dirt from the floor of the Beis ha'Mikdash. The merit of a Mitzvah is able to protect the woman from this "natural" calamity even though it cannot protect her from the Yisurin which she must suffer eventually due to her sins. (M. Kornfeld)
Sotah 22
1) THE REWARD FOR WALKING TO SHUL
QUESTION: The Gemara teaches that when there are two synagogues in one's vicinity, he receives "Sechar Pesi'os" for walking to the synagogue which is farther away. RASHI explains that this Gemara teaches that when a person exerts himself more than necessary in order to do a Mitzvah, he acquires more reward for the Mitzvah (see Avos 5:23, "l'Fum Tza'ara Agra").
Although the importance of exerting oneself for a Mitzvah may be derived from the words of the Gemara here, the Gemara expresses this principle only with regard to exerting oneself by traveling a longer distance to reach a Beis ha'Keneses. (The Gemara does not say, for example, that one performs a greater Mitzvah when he walks a longer distance to perform the Mitzvah of sitting in a Sukah.) Is there any reason for why walking to a Beis ha'Keneses is unique in this respect?
ANSWERS:
(a) Perhaps there is a special Mitzvah to travel to the Beis ha'Keneses because the Beis ha'Keneses is called a "Mikdash Me'at" (Megilah 29a; see also Bava Metzia 28b), and the Torah gives a Mitzvah to travel to the Beis ha'Mikdash during the Regel. The same Mitzvah to travel to the Beis ha'Mikdash applies to traveling to the "Mikdash Me'at," the Beis ha'Keneses.
(b) The objective of prayer is to bring oneself closer to Hash-m and to lessen the distance between Hash-m and oneself, so to speak (see Sotah 5a). Traveling a distance towards the synagogue symbolizes that one is exerting himself to lessen the distance between Hash-m and him. Therefore, it is an appropriate preface to prayer. (This may also be one of the themes of Aliyah l'Regel.) (MAHARAL in NESIVOS OLAM, Nesiv ha'Avodah 5)
2) AGADAH: A WRONGFUL ACT OF A TALMID CHACHAM
The Gemara teaches that a Talmid Chacham can become liable for death for either passing Halachic rulings when he is not yet of age, or for not passing Halachic rulings when he is of age.
Based on this Gemara, the VILNA GA'ON (Kol Eliyahu #64) offers a fascinating explanation for why the phrase "Lo Tirtzach" in the Aseres ha'Dibros (Shemos 20:13) is pronounced in two different ways. When the Torah is read with the Ta'am ha'Tachton, the sub-lineal cantillational notes, the word "Tirtzach" is in the middle of a verse and is pronounced with the vowelization of a "Patach" beneath the letter Tzadi. When the Torah is read with the Ta'am ha'Elyon, the super-lineal cantillational notes, the word is pronounced with the vowelization of a "Kamatz" since it is read as the end of the verse, and thus it is pronounced "Tirtzoch."
The Vilna Ga'on explains that the verse alludes to the two sins for which a Talmid Chacham is punished with death. By transgressing one of these two sins, a Talmid Chacham also commits "murder" ("Tirtzach") because he brings about his own death (or because he brings about the death of the people of his generation, as RASHI in Avodah Zarah (19b) writes). The first sin is that the Talmid Chacham opens ("Patach") his mouth and renders Halachic rulings when he is not supposed to do so, and the other sin is that he closes ("Kamatz," as in "Kamtzan") his mouth when he is supposed to open it and render Halachic rulings!

22b----------------------------------------22b

3) DOING MITZVOS "SHE'LO LISHMAH"
QUESTION: The Gemara describes seven types of undesirable Perushim. Among them are, "Parush Shichmi," "Parush me'Ahavah," and "Parush me'Yir'ah." RASHI explains that "Parush Shichmi" refers to a person who performs Mitzvos like the people of Shechem, who circumcised themselves to gain honor and not l'Shem Shamayim. (The Yerushalmi explains that "Parush Shichmi" refers to a person who carries his Mitzvos on his "shoulder" ("Shechem") in order to flaunt them publicly.) "Parush me'Ahavah" and "Parush me'Yir'ah" refer to people who act devoutly out of their desire for reward for performing the Mitzvos, or out of their desire to avoid punishment for transgressing the Mitzvos, and they do not do the Mitzvos out of love for Hash-m.
Abaye and Rava state that the Tana should omit the last two Perushim, because they are not derogatory types of Perushim. Rav teaches that a person should learn Torah and do Mitzvos even she'Lo Lishmah because such acts will bring him to do them Lishmah. The Gemara in Nazir (23b) adds that Rav cites support for this from the fact that Balak sacrificed 42 Korbanos only in order to appease Hash-m to destroy the Jewish people, and yet he merited to have Ruth as a granddaughter who fulfilled the Mitzvos Lishmah (see Insights to Nazir 23:3-4).
Why does Abaye not state that the Tana should also omit "Parush Shichmi" from his list? A "Parush Shichmi" is also one who does Mitzvos she'Lo Lishmah, and he, too, will eventually merit to do them Lishmah.
ANSWERS:
(a) The MAHARSHA explains that when the people of Shechem performed Milah, everyone who saw them knew that they performed the act for their own personal gain and not Lishmah. Therefore, their act was not on the same level as one who does a Mitzvah in a way that only he knows that he is doing it for personal gain and not Lishmah. The she'Lo Lishmah of Shechem is indeed a derogatory form of Lo Lishmah.
However, this approach does not seem consistent with the proof that Rav cites from Balak. In his case, it certainly was clear to everyone that Balak was bringing his Korbanos only out of his desire for personal gain, and yet Rav says that Balak's act is the source that one who does a Mitzvah she'Lo Lishmah will eventually do it Lishmah.
(b) RAV ELYASHIV shlit'a (quoted in HE'OROS B'MASECHES SOTAH) explains that although a person who performs Mitzvos -- which he is obligated to do -- she'Lo Lishmah is doing something positive, a person who is not obligated to do a certain Mitzvah but chooses to do it for personal gain is not acting properly. He should refrain from doing the Mitzvah altogether rather than do it she'Lo Lishmah. The people in Shechem were not obligated to perform Milah, and therefore when they performed the Mitzvah she'Lo Lishmah they acted improperly. Similarly, a person who wears Tefilin all day only in order to gain the respect of others does not act properly.
This might explain why Rashi (DH Ma'aseh Shechem) writes that this Parush performs "his acts" ("Ma'asav") for his own benefit, and he does not write that this Parush performs "Mitzvos" for his own benefit.
However, this approach also does not seem consistent with the proof from Balak who offered Korbanos she'Lo Lishmah. How can Rav prove from Balak that "Mitoch she'Lo Lishmah, Ba Lishmah," if Balak was not obligated to offer Korbanos?
(c) Rav states that a person should do Mitzvos even she'Lo Lishmah because doing Mitzvos she'Lo Lishmah brings a person to do them Lishmah. To whom does Rav address his statement? Does he address the person who does not want to do Mitzvos at all, or does he address the person who wants to do Mitzvos Lishmah? He obviously is not addressing a person who wants to do Mitzvos Lishmah, because he would not tell that person to do the Mitzvos she'Lo Lishmah. Rather, Rav must be addressing a person who is ready to refrain from doing a Mitzvah because he knows he cannot do it Lishmah. Rav tells him that he should do the Mitzvah in any case, because by doing it she'Lo Lishmah he will merit to do it Lishmah. The person to whom Rav addresses his statement clearly does not intend to do the Mitzvah for personal gain, because such a person would not consider refraining from doing the Mitzvah due to his lack of ability to do it Lishmah.
Rather, Rav is addressing a person who wants to do Mitzvos Lishmah but he has difficulty recognizing the loftiness of Hash-m and arousing in himself a love for Hash-m. The person wants to do the will of Hash-m, but he considers refraining from doing the Mitzvah because he reasons that if he performs the Mitzvah, he will not do it in the proper manner and Hash-m will be displeased with him. Rav tells such a person that even if his only reason to do the Mitzvah is to avoid the wrath of Hash-m, it is better than not doing the Mitzvah at all. Through such performance of the Mitzvah he will merit to perform Mitzvos out of love for Hash-m. Rav proves from Balak that a person who does Mitzvos she'Lo Lishmah merits to do Mitzvos Lishmah.
According to this approach, perhaps Rav advises a person to perform a Mitzvah she'Lo Lishmah only in the circumstances mentioned above because a person who is not on the proper level of Avodas Hash-m is unable to arouse in himself the love of Hash-m until he performs Mitzvos, and through the performance of Mitzvos he comes to do them Lishmah. However, if a person wants to do Mitzvos for personal gain, Rav would tell him to refrain from doing Mitzvos, since the person should do Mitzvos simply because he is obligated by the Torah to do them and he does not need to do them in a way that brings him personal gain. If he is not bound by the Torah, he should avoid doing them entirely.
The proof Rav cites from Balak is that any she'Lo Lishmah performance of a Mitzvah can lead to Lishmah, even the worst she'Lo Lishmah (for personal gain). However, there is no need to advise a person to do Mitzvos in such a manner (to gain honor or monetary benefit in this world), since he could just as well do the Mitzvah for the reward in the World to Come. Nothing stops him from doing the Mitzvah for reward in the World to Come.
For this reason, Abaye says that the last two Perushim should be omitted from the list. Rav teaches that it is advisable to serve Hash-m in such a Lo Lishmah manner. However, doing Mitzvos in the manner of the "Parush Shichmi" is never an advisable manner in which to serve Hash-m, even if it may lead one to do Mitzvos Lishmah.
This explanation also supports the explanations of the Maharsha and Rav Elyashiv in He'oros b'Maseches Sotah. (M. Kornfeld)
Sotah 23
1) A FATHER WHO MAKES HIS SON A NAZIR
QUESTION: The Mishnah lists a number of Halachic differences between a man and a woman. One of those differences is that a man may obligate his minor son (Katan) to observe an oath of Nezirus, while a woman may not.
What significance is there to the Nezirus of a minor? Since the Torah does not obligate a Katan to observe the Mitzvos, why does the Torah require that he observe the Nezirus which his father accepted on his behalf?
(a) The RAMBAM (Hilchos Nezirus 2:13) explains that the obligations of this Nezirus apply to the father. The father must treat his son like a Nazir by keeping him away from wine, haircuts, and Tum'ah. This also appears to be the intention of the ROSH (Nazir 28b) who writes that the father must bring all of the Korbanos for the Nezirus of his son.
(b) RASHI (DH ha'Ish; see also BARTENURA here) writes that when the father accepts an oath of Nezirus on behalf of his son, his son remains a Nazir even if he reaches adulthood during the period of the Nezirus. Perhaps Rashi finds it necessary to mention this point here in order to explain the relevance of the Nezirus to the son. Rashi explains that even the child himself, and not just the father, is affected by the Nezirus because -- if he becomes an adult and becomes obligated in Mitzvos during the Nezirus -- he will become obligated mid'Oraisa to observe all of the laws of Nezirus as a result of the Nezirus which took effect while he was a Katan. (Although Mitzvos do not apply to a Katan, a change of status, like the status of Nazir, does apply to a Katan, such as the status of Tum'ah and Taharah.)
RASHI in Makos (22a, DH Nazir Shimshon) and the MEFARESH in Nazir (30a, DH Ka'im, and DH Hachi Garsinan) also imply that if the father makes his son a Nazir, the Nezirus remains in force even after the son becomes an adult.
However, TOSFOS in Nazir (28b, DH v'Ein) and the ROSH and other Rishonim (ibid.) cite a Tosefta (Nazir 3:9) which clearly states that just as Macha'ah (protest of the son or other relative) ends the son's Nezirus and prevents him from bringing the Korbanos of a Nazir, so, too, adulthood (the growth of two Se'aros) ends his Nezirus and prevents him from bringing the Korbanos of a Nazir. This is clear as well from the Gemara in Nazir (beginning of 30a) which, according to these Rishonim, bases its question on the fact that once the son reaches adulthood, the Nezirus which his father accepted for him is no longer valid (and he must make himself a Nazir if he wants to observe a full Nezirus).
How does Rashi understand the Tosefta? Perhaps Rashi maintains that when a son reaches adulthood after his father made him a Nazir, although he must observe his Nezirus he does not bring the Korbanos at the conclusion of the Nezirus. This is because the Korbanos are part of the obligation which a person accepts when he makes an oath of Nezirus (see Nedarim 4a). Since the father accepted the obligation of the Nezirus on behalf of his son, it becomes the father's obligation to bring Korbanos. When his son reaches adulthood (and is no longer in his father's domain), he does not acquire the obligation of Korbanos from his father, but the father is also not obligated to bring the Korbanos because his son has left his domain. The Tosefta means only that the Nezirus of the son is no longer applicable with regard to its Korbanos. Therefore, the laws of the Mishnah apply to a son who reaches adulthood after his father made him a Nazir (for example, if his father set aside for him an animal before he became an adult, it is a Chatas Mesah).
The Gemara in Nazir (beginning of 30a) also might mean that since the son does not bring Korbanos when he reaches adulthood, he is not bound by all of the laws of Nezirus. (This also answers the questions of the KEREN ORAH on the Mefaresh there.) (See also Insights to Nazir 28:1.)
2) HALACHIC DIFFERENCES BETWEEN A MAN AND A WOMAN
QUESTION: The Mishnah lists a number of Halachic differences between a man and a woman. The Mishnah, however, omits a number of important differences. Why does the Mishnah not mention that a woman is not obligated to fulfill time-related Mitzvos (Mitzvos Aseh sheha'Zeman Gerama), or that a woman is not bound by the Lavim of Hakafah and Gilu'ach (shaving the head and shaving the beard), as the Mishnah in Kidushin (29a) mentions? Also, why does the Mishnah here not mention the Mitzvos of Talmud Torah, Piryah v'Rivyah, and Pidyon ha'Ben, from which a woman is exempt (Kidushin 34b), and the Mitzvos which only a father is responsible to do for his child, such as Milah (Kidushin 29a)?
The Tosefta (2:8) cited by TOSFOS (23b, DH Mah) indeed adds to the Mishnah's list the difference of Mitzvos Aseh sheha'Zeman Gerama, Hakafah, and Gilu'ach. However, even the Tosefta omits Talmud Torah, Piryah v'Rivyah, Pidyon ha'Ben, and Milah. Why does it omit these Mitzvos?
ANSWER: Apparently, the intent of the Mishnah is to list only ways in which men and women differ with regard to the details of Mitzvos, but not with regard to their obligations to observe Mitzvos in general. The Mishnah lists the differences between men and women with regard to details of Mitzvos such as the procedure required by a woman who is a Metzora or a woman who is a Nezirah, the status of a son whose mother attempts to make him a Nazir, how a woman is punished with Sekilah, and how she is treated if she steals. The Mishnah mentions only these differences because they are related to the Mishnah's discussion about the how to sacrifice the Minchah offering of a Kohen. The Mishnah says that when a Kohen donates a Minchah, there is a difference between the way the Minchah is offered when donated by a male Kohen and when donated by a female Kohenes. This difference is not a general difference between the Kohen and Kohenes. In contrast, all of the Mitzvos omitted by the Mishnah are general obligations and not matters of details about a Mitzvah.
The Tosefta, in contrast, discusses general obligations of a man and woman.
If the Tosefta discusses differences that relate to the general obligations of a man and woman, why does the Tosefta omit the Mitzvos of Talmud Torah, Piryah v'Rivyah, Pidyon ha'Ben, and Milah?
The answer may be inherent in the wording of the Tosefta. The Tosefta says that a woman "may transgress a Mitzvas Aseh sheha'Zeman Gerama, and not a man." The Tosefta lists only Mitzvos which one may transgress (such as the Isur of Hakafah and Gilu'ach, and missing the time to do the Mitzvah in the case of a Mitzvas Aseh sheha'Zeman Gerama), but not Mitzvos which are not limited to a particular time (such as Talmud Torah, Piryah v'Rivyah, and Pidyon ha'Ben) and thus it is not possible to discuss "transgressing" them.
Perhaps the reason why the Tosefta lists only Mitzvos which one can transgress is that only in those cases is there a difference in the details of the Mitzvah for a man and for a woman. That is, in Mitzvos that are "transgressable" there is a difference between a man and woman with regard to whether the transgressor is punished with Malkus d'Oraisa or Malkus d'Rabanan. The Tosefta lists these Mitzvos Aseh not because of the difference in their obligation or exemption, but because of the differences in the details for a person who violates them. In contrast, the only difference between a man and a woman with regard to the Mitzvos of Talmud Torah, Piryah v'Rivyah, Pidyon ha'Ben, and Milah is the obligation itself, and not the details of the obligation, or the outcome (such as the punishment) of the obligation.
Sotah 24
1) MAY A "SHOMERES YAVAM" AND AN "ARUSAH" DRINK THE "MEI SOTAH"?
QUESTION: The Gemara records a dispute between Rebbi Yonasan and Rebbi Yoshiyah with regard to whether a Shomeres Yavam may drink the Mei Sotah. They agree that an Arusah may not drink the Mei Sotah, and they agree that the Yavam's Kinuy is effective to cause the Shomeres Yavam to lose her Kesuvah (and to prohibit her to the Yavam; see Rashi 23b, DH v'Lo Notlos). The Mishnah (23b) follows the opinion of Rebbi Yonasan who says that a Shomeres Yavam, like an Arusah, does not drink the Mei Sotah.
How is the view of Rebbi Yonasan and the Mishnah here to be reconciled with the Mishnah earlier (18b) which states that when the woman is given the Mei Sotah to drink, she must affirm an oath that not only did she not sin while married (during Nisu'in), but that she also did not sin while she was an Arusah or a Shomeres Yavam? The Mishnah there clearly implies that a woman does drink the Mei Sotah when her husband (or Yavam) accuses her of infidelity while she is a Shomeres Yavam or Arusah.
ANSWERS: The Gemara in Yevamos (58b) and Kidushin (27b) asks this question and offers three answers.
(a) The Gemara in Kidushin (27b) explains that the Mishnah earlier in Sotah (18b) does not refer to a case in which a man gives his wife the Mei Sotah to drink because of a Kinuy and Setirah which occur while she is a Shomeres Yavam or an Arusah. Rather, it refers to a case in which he gives his wife the Mei Sotah to drink because of a Kinuy and Setirah which occur after Nisu'in. The Mishnah teaches that once she is obligated to drink the Mei Sotah for a Kinuy and Setirah which occur after Nisu'in, she is required to swear that not only did she not sin during the Setirah for which she is accused, but that she also did not sin at any other time of her marriage, such as when she was an Arusah or Shomeres Yavam. The Gemara states there that this Mishnah is the source for the concept of "Gilgul Shevu'ah."
This seems to be the approach of the Gemara in Sotah (19b) as well. The Gemara infers from the Mishnah that a Shomeres Yavam who sinned with another man is prohibited to marry the Yavam from the fact that the Mishnah says that an additional clause is appended to the Shevu'ah ("Gilgul") only for the type of sin that would make her prohibited to her husband. The Gemara clearly understands the Mishnah in its most literal sense -- that the case of Shomeres Yavam in the Mishnah refers to an ordinary case of a Yevamah who is waiting to perform Yibum.
This is also the approach of Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak in Yevamos (58b; see Insights to Yevamos 58:1).
(b) However, Rav Sheshes and Rav Papa in Yevamos (58b) avoid this approach. Apparently, they find this approach unsatisfactory because it leads to one of two conclusions: it either supports the view of Rav Hamnuna that a Shomeres Yavam who sinned is prohibited to the Yavam, or it supports the view of Rebbi Akiva that Chayavei Lavim have the same status as Chayavei Kerisus and therefore a Shomeres Yavam who sinned is prohibited to the Yavam in the same way that an Eshes Ish who sinned is prohibited to her husband (as the Gemara says earlier in Sotah, 18b). The problem is that the Gemara itself rules against both of these opinions. It rules against Rav Hamnuna's opinion earlier in Sotah (18b; see, however, Tosfos there, DH Amrei, who rules contrary to the Gemara's conclusion), and it rules against Rebbi Akiva in Yevamos (49a).
Therefore, Rav Sheshes and Rav Papa suggest that the Mishnah (18b) does not refer to the case of "Gilgul Shevu'ah," but rather it refers to a case of Kinuy of a woman who is actually a Shomeres Yavam or an Arusah. Why is such a woman given the Mei Sotah to drink? Rav Papa in Yevamos suggests that the Mishnah means that the husband performed Kinuy while she was a Shomeres Yavam or Arusah, and the woman was Nisterah with the other man after she did Yibum or became married. The Kinuy performed when she was a Shomeres Yavam or Arusah is effective, as the Gemara here says. It is only the Setirah which must occur after she is fully married in order to obligate her to drink the Mei Sotah. (This is one way Rashi explains Rav Papa's answer in Yevamos. However, Rashi himself points out that this answer is tenuous because if the Setirah occurred after she was married, the Mishnah should not say that she "became a Sotah" while she was a Shomeres Yavam or Arusah. Rashi therefore offers another explanation there for Rav Papa's answer; see (c) below.)
(c) The Gemara in Yevamos suggests further that the Mishnah in Sotah (18b) means that an Arusah -- who had Kinuy and Setirah while she was an Arusah -- could be required to drink the Mei Sotah later, after she becomes married (as the Gemara here (25a) mentions).
However, this suggestion raises a new problem. If she was Nisterah while she was an Arusah, before the Nisu'in, the Shechivas ha'Bo'el (the sin with the adulterer) occurred before the husband lived with her. One of the prerequisites for giving the woman the Mei Sotah is that the Shechivas ha'Ba'al (relations with the husband) must precede the Shechivas ha'Bo'el. Why, then, should an Arusah be required to drink the Mei Sotah?
The Gemara in Yevamos answers (as it answers here in Sotah) that the Mishnah must be referring to a case in which the husband had relations with her before he married her ("b'Beis Chamihah"). However, this answer suffices to explain only why an Arusah drinks the Mei Sotah. An Arusah can become a Nesu'ah after the Setirah through Chupah (without Bi'ah with her husband), and thus she fulfills the requirement of "Menukah me'Avon." (In order to drink the Mei Sotah, the husband and the accused woman may not have relations after the Setirah.) This answer does not suffice to explain why a Shomeres Yavam drinks the Mei Sotah. If a Shomeres Yavam underwent Kinuy and Setirah before she did Yibum, there is no possible way for the Yavam to marry her and still remain "Menukeh me'Avon," since the only way to marry a Yevamah is through an act of Bi'ah of Yibum. Moreover, there is no way to fulfill the requirement that the Shechivas ha'Ba'al precede the Shechivas ha'Bo'el; how can the Yavam have relations with the Shomeres Yavam before the adulterer does? If he has relations with her, she will no longer be a Shomeres Yavam at the time of the Setirah, because by having relations with her he thereby consummates the marriage!
The Gemara in Yevamos suggests a number of answers to this question.
1. The Mishnah refers to a case in which the Yavam had relations with the Shomeres Yavam against her will, prior to the Setirah. Since the act of Bi'ah was against her will, it is not fully effective. Therefore, she is still considered a Shomeres Yavam (according to the view of Shmuel, who rules that an act of Bi'ah against her will is not Koneh her with regard to Terumah), and yet she is able to drink the Mei Sotah since the Yavam had relations with her (according to the view of Rebbi Yoshiyah, who rules that a Shomeres Yavam after Bi'ah against her will does drink the Mei Sotah, in contrast to the Mishnah on 23b).
2. The Gemara suggests further that the Mishnah follows the opinion of Beis Shamai who says that Ma'amar is Koneh a Shomeres Yavam, and -- after Ma'amar -- Bi'ah can no longer be Koneh her without Chupah (see Yevamos 29b, where the Gemara is in doubt about this point). In this case, the Yavam lived with her after Ma'amar, after which the adulterer was Nisterah with her.
3. RASHI in Yevamos suggests another explanation for the Gemara there, according to which the Gemara answers that it indeed is not necessary for the Yavam himself to live with the Yevamah before the adulterer. The Bi'ah which the original brother did with his wife (before he died) suffices to fulfill the condition that the "husband's Bi'ah precede the adulterer's," as the Yavam merely takes the place of his deceased brother.
One problem remains, however. Why does the Shomeres Yavam drink the Mei Sotah at all, if Rebbi Yonasan rules that a Shomeres Yavam does not drink the Mei Sotah? The Gemara could have answered that the Mishnah follows the opinion of Rebbi Yoshiyah that a Shomeres Yavam does drink the Mei Sotah. However, the Gemara answers that the Mishnah may follow even the opinion of Rebbi Yonasan, if it rules like Beis Shamai who says that Ma'amar is Koneh the Yevamah, and if Rebbi Yonasan agrees that after Ma'amar the Yevamah may drink the Mei Sotah. (Alternatively, the Mishnah may follow the opinion of Rebbi Yonasan if it rules like Shmuel who says that Bi'ah against her will is not Koneh the Yevamah for all matters, and if Rebbi Yonasan agrees that it is Koneh her with regard to drinking the Mei Sotah.)
Why, though, does Rashi write that the Bi'ah of the deceased brother is considered to be the Shechivas ha'Ba'al which precedes the Shechivas ha'Bo'el? This clearly contradicts the Gemara here (see TOSFOS to 58a, DH d'Kavasah). The answer is that Rashi understands that the dispute between the Sugyos with regard to whether the Mishnah (18b) is discussing a case of "Gilgul Shevu'ah" or an ordinary case of Kinuy revolves around this point. The Gemara in Yevamos maintains that the Mishnah is discussing an ordinary case of Kinuy, because it understands that the Bi'ah of the deceased husband is considered Shechivas ha'Ba'al. Accordingly, the Mishnah refers to the Kinuy of a Shomeres Yavam (as in (3) above). The Gemara here, however, and in Kidushin understands that the deceased husband's Bi'ah does not qualify as the Shechivas ha'Ba'al, and therefore the Gemara cannot explain that the Mishnah refers to an ordinary case of Kinuy while the woman was a Shomeres Yavam, since the requirement that the Shechivas ha'Ba'al precede the Shechivas ha'Bo'el cannot be fulfilled. Therefore, the Gemara must explain that the Mishnah discusses a case of "Gilgul Shevu'ah."
Sotah 25
1) THE HUSBAND'S "MECHILAH" OF HIS "KINUY"
QUESTION: The Gemara says that the husband may forgo his Kinuy and prevent his wife from becoming prohibited to him through Setirah with the suspected adulterer after the Kinuy. The Mechilah of the Kinuy renders the Setirah nothing more than a transgression of the Isur of Yichud, which does not prohibit her to her husband since she has a Chezkas Kashrus that she is innocent of sin.
One Amora maintains that the husband may forgo the Kinuy even after his wife did Setirah and thereby permit her to him retroactively. How does the husband's Mechilah of his Kinuy permit his wife after the Setirah? The reason why the woman becomes prohibited to him when she did Setirah after Kinuy (as opposed to Setirah without Kinuy) is the logical argument of "Raglayim l'Davar" (Nidah 3a): since the husband warned her not to seclude herself with this man and informed her of the consequences, she would not have secluded herself with him unless she had a strong Yetzer ha'Ra to sin with him, and thus it may be assumed that she sinned.
The Mechilah of the Kinuy does not remove this logical argument. She still should be prohibited to her husband because of "Raglayim l'Davar" that she sinned. (REBBI AKIVA EIGER)
ANSWERS:
(a) RABEINU CHAIM HA'LEVI answers that "Raglayim l'Davar" alone does not suffice to prohibit a Sotah to her husband. The Chezkas Kashrus would overpower even the "Raglayim l'Davar" and permit her if not for the special Gezeiras ha'Kasuv which teaches that when a woman is Nisterah after Kinuy, she becomes prohibited to her husband. Therefore, when the husband forgoes the Kinuy, the woman is no longer prohibited to him. (See Insights to Sotah 18:1.)
(b) Perhaps the Mechilah of the Kinuy indeed weakens the proof of "Raglayim l'Davar." The woman may have known that the husband's Mechilah of the Kinuy is effective, and she may have planned to persuade her husband to be Mochel the Kinuy and permit her to remain married to him. As a result, she knew she did not risk very much by secluding herself with the other man after the Kinuy. She may have felt free to seclude herself with him without sinning, and therefore there is no "Raglayim l'Davar."
This situation is comparable to Kinuy done without witnesses, which the Gemara (2b) implies cannot prohibit to her husband even though both know that there was a Kinuy. (See the TESHUVOS SHA'AGAS ARYEH, Hosafah 1.) Why should she be permitted to him if she was Nisterah after such a Kinuy? She should be prohibited because of "Raglayim l'Davar" since they both know that there was a Kinuy! The answer is that she was not afraid to seclude herself after such a Kinuy since she knew that the consequences would not be so severe, for she could simply deny that there ever was a Kinuy and no one would be able to disprove her.
(c) Alternatively, if the husband was Mochel the Kinuy, it is assumed that he investigated the matter and determined that his wife did not sin with the other man. This Chazakah is based on the assumption that a husband normally does not desire to return to an unfaithful wife. The fact that he was Mochel the Kinuy and wants to return to her indicates that he investigated the matter and found her innocent. (This Chazakah is similar to the Chazakah of "Ishah Daika u'Minseva" (Yevamos 25a), which states that when a woman remarries based on the testimony of a single witness who says that her first husband died, it is assumed that she remarries only after she has thoroughly investigated the matter and knows that the witness is telling the truth.)
This Chazakah offsets the proof of "Raglayim l'Davar" which states that she sinned, and therefore she is permitted to her husband. (M. Kornfeld)



Please Mr. Netanyahu, Mr. Ben Gvir, Mr. Smotrich and Mr. Gallant unite and bring Hashem’s Righteousness back to the Har HaBayit?

Under HaShem’s Righteousness the Har HaBayit shall become a Prayer House for all peoples. Jews, Muslims, and Christians when they put away Avoda Zara and their false doctrines……

By annulling that covenant made with the Islamic authorities in ’67 on the Har Habayit and all other covenants, banning all crimes and abominations by PA, Hamas and Islamic Jihad with an Iron fist declaring Jewish Sovereignty in all the Land Hashem gave the Jewish People in ’67.


בבקשה מר נתניהו, מר בן גביר, מר סמוטריץ' ומר גלנט תתאחדו והחזירו את צדקת ה' להר הבית,
?

תחת צדקת השם הר הבית יהפוך לבית תפילה לכל העמים: יהודים, מוסלמים ונוצרים כשהם מסירים עבודה זרה ואת דוקטרינות השקר שלהם...

על ידי ביטול הברית שנכרתה עם השלטונות האיסלאמיים בשנת 67' על הר הבית וכל שאר הבריתות, איסור על כל הפשעים והתועבות שנעשות על ידי הרשות הפלסטינית, חמאס והג'יהאד האסלאמי. והכרזת ריבונות יהודית על כל ארץ ישראל.

 

Come let us Pray that Hashem's Righteousness shall 'return' to the Har haBayit and the whole of Eretz Israel.

בוא נתפלל שצדקת ה' 'תשוב' להר הבית ולארץ ישראל כולה.

Free to study all Jewish Scripture:

חופשי ללמוד את כל כתבי הקודש היהודיים:

Sefaria Calendar - לוח שנה ספריה



   

Our Prayer and hope: All the gates to the Har haBayit have to be opened for Jews and non-Jews seven days in the week 24 hours a day. The Jews need to have the freedom to go with Tefillin, Tallit and Torah Scroll up on the Mountain to serve Hashem. And do קידה ('Kidah' prostate, laying down, before Hashem) Everyone showing his/her respect for the Jewish and all other religions. But NOT for the words/deeds/sins spoken against any word of the Torah of Moshe Rabbeinu and the 'real' teachings of the Jewish Rabbis. The Jews must be the guardians of the Har haBayit.



תפילתנו ותקוותנו: כל שערי הר הבית צריכים להיפתח עבור יהודים ולא-יהודים שבעה ימים בשבוע 24 שעות ביממה. ליהודים צריך להיות חופש ללכת עם תפילין, טלית וספר תורה במעלה ההר כדי לשרת את ה' ולקוד קידה .מתוך הפגנת כבוד ליהודים ולכל הדתות האחרות, אבל לא למילים/למעשים/לחטאים הנאמרים נגד תורת משה רבנו. מלמודי רבנים, היהודים חייבים להיות שומרי הר הבית.



   

Let's pray for a death sentence for the Palestinian Authority, Hamas, Hezbollah and for the continuation of the Jewish settlement in Judea and Samaria. The Palestinian Authority, Hamas and Hezbollah must disappear. Enough of the hatred from the world (the USA, the European Union, and the UN!) against the Jewish people.

 



בואו נתפלל לגזר דין מוות לרשות הפלסטינית, חמאס, חיזבאללה ולמען התיישבות יהודית ביהודה ושומרון. הרשות הפלסטינית, חמאס וחיזבאללה חייבים להעלם. די לשנאה מהעולם (ארה"ב, האיחוד האירופי והאו"ם!) נגד העם היהודי!





The Jews have the mission to change the Har HaBayit, from her situation now, into a Prayer House for all peoples based on the Torah Law of Moshe Rabbeinu.

 





על היהודים מוטלת המשימה לשנות את הר הבית, ממצבו הקיים, לבית תפילה לכל העמים על פי חוק התורה של משה רבנו.

 

Ariel, hopefully your Representee

אריאל, מקווה שהנציג שלך

 

 

Click: If you have Prayer Requests

Har HaBait Jewish Sovereign for all Israel

I pray as a Jew when I bring your prayers.


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